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My friend and I were discussing the decriminalization of marijuana in MA. He proposed he would only vote yes for the referendum if there was a "bi-law" to the decriminalization stating that if a person is found to be under the influence or in possession of marijuana after committing a violent crime, that person will be charged with criminal possession of marijuana as well. Would it even legally possible for the criminality of marijuana possession to be circumstantial to other crimes committed (if decriminalized)? I thought his argument wasn't logical or legally possible. Please help! |
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